otet exam question and answer 2020
Child Development and Pedagogy
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-30) Answer the following questions by selecting the correct most appropriate options
1.Which one of the following best describes a teacher’s role?
(1)Creating a relaxed space where children learn through dialogue and inquiry
(2)Teacher’s most important role in the classroom is to maintain discipline
(3)A teacher should adhere to the prescribed textbook
(4)Completing the syllabus on time leaving enough time for revision is important
2.Which one of the following classrooms encourages rich learning?
(1)A classroom with structured and planned learning driven by textbook content
(2)A classroom with a variety of material displayed in the class beyond the reach of children so that the material lasts longer
(3)A classroom with open activity comers and a variety of children’s literature in open shelves accessible any time of the day
(4)A classroom with neatly organised material in cupboards brought out once a week for free play
3. Which one of the following best describes the role of textbooks in the classroom?
(1) They form the most essential learning resource in a resource-starved context.
(2) They are one of the resource and reference materials available in the class.
(3) They maintain homogeneity in learning across a State of the Nation.
(4) They provide guidance to teachers and parents about the course of study.
4. The National Curriculum Framework, 2005 derives its understanding from
(1) cognitive theories
(2) humanism
(3) behaviourism
(4) constructivism
5.The children in a class can be considered to be motivated if
(1)they ask questions seeking clarification from the teacher
(2) they come to school neatly dressed in uniform
(3)they maintain discipline inthe class
(4)all are regular inattendance
6. Which one of the following is the most suitable to improve children’s learning?
(1)Teacher should facilitate children to interact with each other on real-life situations.
(2) Regular assessment test should be conducted.
(3) Teacher should explain the content using different example and illustrations.
(4) All types of learning material should be there inthe class.
7.The discipline which has a significant role in a learning environment is of the kind which helps
(1) children rote memorise their lessons
(2) children to regulate and monitor their own learning
(3) to create silence
(4) teachers to give instructions
8. Which one of the following statements is true about the role of heredity and environment?
(1) Environment plays a significant role only in the child’s language development.
(2) Certain aspects of development are influenced more by heredity and others more by environment.
(3) A child’s ability to learo and perform is completely decided by the genes.
(4) Good care and a nutritious diet can fight off any disorder
a child is born with.
09 . Which one of the following statements cannot he attributed to Piaget’s theory?
(1) Children act on their environment
(2) Development occurs in qualitative stages.
(3) Children construct and use knowledge about their world.
(4) Learning takes place through constant practice.
10. Which one of the following is not a limitation of the preoperational thought?
(1) Irreversibility
(2) Tendency to concentrate
(3) Development of the symbolic thought
(4) Egoceottism
11.Play has a significant role in development of young children for the following reasons, except
(1)they acquire new skills and learn when to use them
(2)they gain mastery over their body
(3)it stimulates their senses
(4)it is just a pleasant way to spend time
12. Which one of the following questions invites children to think critically?
(1) What are the different ways in which we can solve this?
(2) Do you know the answer to this?
(3) What is the right answer?
(4) Can you think of a similar situation?
13.Which one of the following options best describes progressive education?
(1)Project method, ability grouping, ranking
(2)Learning by doing, project method, cooperative learning
(3)Thematic units, regular unit tests, ranking
(4) Personalised learning, ability grouping, labeling students
14. Which one of the following statements about progressive education explains ‘Education is life itself’?
(1) Life is the true educator.
(2) School education should continue as long as possible.
(3) Schools are not required, children can learn from their life experiences.
(4) Education in schools should reflect the social and natural world.
15. Which one of the following can he considered as a contribution of Kohlberg’s theory?
(1) His belief is tlm children are moral philosophers.
(2) His theory has supported an association between cognitive maturity and moral maturity.
(3) The theory has elaborate testing procedures.
(4) It establishes a clear relationship betweeo moral reasoning and
action.
16. The Zone of Proximal Development refers to
(1) the point in learning when support can be withdrawn
(2) the phase when maximum development is possible
(3) the developmental phase when child takes complete responsibility for learning
(4) a context in which children can almost perform a task on their own with the right level of support
17. An androgynous personality
(1) adheres to stereotypical gender roles prevalent in the society
(2) refers to men with feminine traits
(3) has a balance of what are generally considered masculine and
feminine traits
(4) tends to be assertive and arrogant
19. One of the critiques of standardised tests has been that
(1) they do not give a clear picture of a child’s ability
(2) they represent largely the mainstteam culture and are
therefore biased
(3) their language is difficult to understand
(4) the tests cannot be adminlstered on large popu’lations
20. The theory of multiple intelligence says that
(1) intelligence can be multiplied with effective pedagogy
(2) intelligence can be rapidly accelerated
(3) intelligence cao be of several kinds
(4) paper-pencil tests are not helpful
21. Teacher can utilise both assessment for learning and assessment of learning to
(1) monitor children’s progress and set appropriate goals to fill their learning gaps
(2) know children’s progress and achievement level
(3) know learning needs of child and select teaching strategy
accordingly
(4) assess child’s performance at periodic intervals and certify
his/her performance
22. Which one of the following is related to Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?
(1) It is useful to label children as slow, poor or intelligent.
(2) It has beeo marubted by the Right to Education Act of India.
(3) It is an integral part of teaching-learning process.
(4) It focuses on child’s achievement in different learning areas.
23. Giftedness in children can be attributed to
(1) a disciplined routine
(2) an interplay between heredity and environment
(3) a resource-rich environment
(4) successful parents
24. Children coming from socio-economically disadvantaged backgrounds need a classroom environment which
(1) categorises children based on their abilities
(2) teaches them good behaviour
(3) values and uses their cultural and linguistic knowledge
(4) discourages the use of their language so that they learn the mainstream language
25. The intervention needed for creative and talented
children in the classroom rests on
(1) giving them the responsibility of teaching other children
(2) use of customised and stimulating instructional methods by
the teacher
(3) giving extra time to them
(4) being affectionate towards them
26. Which one of the following ways is not a suitable way to help hyperactive children learn?
(1) Reprimanding them often for being restless
(2) Breaking up a task into small, manageable segments
(3) Offering alternative ways of learning
(4) Including physical activity in their daily schedule
27. Patterns of divergent thinking identify children, who are
(1) resilient
(2) disabled
(3) dyslexia
(4) creative
28. Which one of the following does not describe the ways in which a teacher can model problem solving for children in the classroom?
(1) Ask questions with convergent answers
(2) Discuss your thought processes about solving a particular
problem
(3) Be honest about making mistakes while solving the problem
(4) Use vocabulary like think, ideas, trial and different answers
29. Which one of the following is an emotion?
(1) Stimulus
(2) Memory
(3) Fear
(4) Attention
30. A three-year-old child explains that milk is produced by a machine at the milk booth. Which one of the following offers the best explanation of the child’s understanding?
(1) The child’s family does not offer a stimulating environment
to the child.
(2) The child has very limited exposures of the world.
(3) The child’s answer is based on his/her experience of buying
milk from the milk booth.
(4) The child has never seen cows.
Child Development and Pedagogy Answers Sit
1 (1) 2 (3) 3 (1) 4 (4) 5 (1) 6 (1) 7 (2) 8 (2) 9 (2) 10 (2)
11 (4) 12 (1) 13 (2) 14 (4) 15 (4) 16 (4) 17 (3) 18 (1) 19 (2) 20 (3)
21 (2) 22 (2) 23 (2) 24 (3) 25 (2) 26 (1) 27 (4) 28 (1) 29 (3) 30 (3)
Environmental Studies
61.Which is most relevant to the mid-day meal time in school?
(1) It wastes a lot of precious time of teaching-learning
(2) It has nothing to do with teaching-learning
(3) It is a good teaching-learning opportunity for EVS teaching-learning
(4) It is for children who come empty stomach to school
62. What does ‘Learning without Burden’ in the context of Environmental Studies imply?
(1) The EVS curriculum needs to be reduced to half
(2) Less weight of schoolbag
(3) Less number of chapters in EVS textbooks
(4) Load of incomprehension needs to be reduced
63.What purpose does group learning serve in an EVS
classroom?
(1) ro manage students easily and reduce workload
(2) Boys and girls can learn separately
(3) To segregate high performers and low achieving students
and to do remedial teaching
(4) To inculcate values of cooperation and working together to
enab]e each child participate actively and learn
64. What is the full form of ‘BALA’?
(1) Braille Aided Learning Assessment
(2) Brain Aided Learning Assignment
(3) Braille as Learning Aid
(4) Building as Learning Aid
65. What do ‘alternative frameworks’ mean?
(1) All ideas that are firmly held by children
(2) Textbook explanations of various physical phenomena
(3) Ideas that differ from the formally accepted explanations of
the concepts
(4) Ideas presently held by scientists and social scientists
66. Women are weaker than men. It is a
(1)superstition (2) myth
(3) scientificfact (4) stereotype
67. What is the location of Jammu and Kashmir and Goa with respect to Bihar in India?
(1) South-West and North-East
(2) East and West
(3) West and East
(4) North-West and South-West
68.Under which of the following conditions will the
process of evaporation be slowest?
(1) Both surface area and temperature decrease
(2) Both surface area and temperature increase
(3) Surface area increases but temperature decreases
(4) Surface area decreases but temperature increases
69. The ability to understand relative position of places, distances and directions is
(1) graphic skill (2) directional skill
(3) mapping skill (4) positional skill
70. Which National Curriculum Framework (NCF) recommended Environmental Studies to be taught as an integrated curricular area at the primary level?
(1) NCF-1975 (2) NCF-2005
(3) NCF-1988 (4) NCF-2000
71.Which region has the practice of shifting cultivation in India?
(1 South-Eastern region
(2) North-Eastern region
(3) Southern region
(4) North-Western region
72. Which one of the following statements is not true for hydropower generated from river dams?
(1) Dams displace indigenous people from their river lifelines
(2) Dams encourage sustainable growth
(3) It does not pollute water or air
(4) Hydropower facilities can have large environmental impacts
73. Which of the following is/are greenhouse gas/gases?
(1) Water vapour (2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Methane (4) All of these
74. Why are cold deserts in India not affected by the monsoon?
(1) Cold deserts are at a very high altitude
(2) Cold deserts have hot summers and extremely cold winters
(3) Cold deserts lie in the rain shadow of the Himalayas
(4) Air is very thin in cold deserts
75. Which one of the following is responsible for turning Taj Mahal yellow?
(1) Chlorine
(3) Sulphur dioxide
(2) Nitrogen dioxide
(4)Sulphur
76.Who built the Golconda Fort?
(1)Pallava Dynasty
(2) Chola Dynasty
(3) Cbalukya Dynasty
(4) Kakatiya Dynasty
77.What is the mass of an object with a density of 15 glml
and a volume of 3 ml?
(1) 12 g
(2) 18 g
(3) 45 g
(4)5 g
78. Which one of the following is a scalar quantity?
(1)Weight
(2)Mass
(3)Gravity
(4)Momentum
79.An object inwhich no light rays can pass through is called
(1)convex (2) opaque
(3) translucent (4) transparent
What will be the weight of an object on the surface of the Earth whose mass is 10 kgon the Moon’s surface?
(1) 10 N (2) 60 kg
(3) 10 kg (4) 60 N
81.The rate of dissolution of a solute depends on
(1)weight (2) pressure
(3) temperature (4) surface area
82.Sushma wants her students to be sensitised for ‘conservation of trees’. Which one of the following is the most suitable strategy to do so?
(1)Helping children to adopt and nurture a plant
(2)Conducting a debate in classroom
(3)Group discussion
(4)Poster making
83. Abhay asked his students to do a survey in groups on diseases that people intheir neighbourhood suffered from. The survey is not mentioned inthe textbook. Which option is not relevant for this teaching-learning strategy?
(1) It helped the community understand the diseases that they
suffered. from
(2) It provided opportunity to interact with community
(3) It helped children connect learning with real life
(4) It enabled children understand data handling and work
together
84. To talk about emergency situations, Priya asked children’s experiences when they faced any emergencies. Children narrated their experiences with fire, electric shock and road accidents. She asked questions, assessed their existing understanding aod discussed safety aspects using resources such as road safety advertisements from newspapers and also used LPG and electric bill to disCUJ!s safety guidelines on fire and electric shock, respectively. Which is the most appropriate approach that Priya employed?
(1) Humanistic approach
(2) Cognitive approach
(3) Experiential learning approach
(4) Enquiry approach
85. ‘Community’ is an importaot teaching and learning
resource,because
(1)one can accept all knowledge available in the community uncritically
(2)it is inexpensive and accessible
(3) elderly people are wise and have time
(4) it provides learning opportunity in real setting
86. In EVS teaching-learuing, linking classroom learuing
to life outside school and enriching it implies
(1) going beyond curriculum
(2) going beyond the textbooks
(3) linking textbooks to global environmental issues and concerns
(4) whole school approach
87. To class III students, Rama taught that a father, mother and their children constitute nuclear family and ifgrandparents and other relatives stay along, then it is an extended family. What do you think of this?
(1) The concept of family has to be taught like this
(2) The definition of a family is incorrect
(3) Rama is insensitive towards her students
(4) The teaching-learning approach is not inclusive
88. Which of the following is/are activity/activities in EVS
classroom?
(1) Use of blackboard
(2) Picture reading
(3) Field visit
(4) All of the above
89. Environmental Studies curriculum may lead to holistic learning of children ifit is
(1) thematic
(2) integrated
(3) inclusive
(4) All of these
90. The EVS textbook has a chapter on snake charmer. It is intended to make children aware and be sensitised
(1) that animal keeping is good source of livelihood
(2) that it is an illegal act
(3) for snake charmers as children do not see them often these
days
(4) that snake charmers may not harmsnak.s and they need to be provided with alternatives before depriving them of their livelihoods
Environmental Studies Answers Sit
61 (4) 62 (2) 63 (4) 64 (4) 65 (3) 66 (4) 67 (4) 68 (1) 69 (3) 70 (4)
71 (2) 72 (2) 73 (4) 74 (1,3) 75 (3) 78 (4) 77 (3) 78 (2) 79 (2) 80 (2)
81 (3) 82 (1) 83 (4) 84 (4) 85 (4) 88 (2) 87 (4) 88 (4) 89 (4) 90 (4)
Eligibility-
Qualification-
(I) Persons having the following minimum qualification shall be eligible for appearing in OTET :-
(a) Category – A
Higher Secondary (or its equivalent) with at least 50% marks and 2 year
Diploma in Elementary Education (CT or D.El.Ed.).
OR,
Higher Secondary (or its equivalent) with at least 45% marks and 2 year Diploma in Elementary Education (by whatever name known), in accordance with the NCTE (Recognition Norms and Procedure) Regulations, 2002.
OR,
Higher Secondary (or its equivalent) with at least 50% marks and 4 year Bachelor of Elementary Education ( B.El.Ed.).
OR,
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Higher Secondary (or its equivalent) with at least 50% marks and 2 year Diploma in Education (Special Education).
OR,
Graduation and two year Diploma in Elementary Education (by whatever name known).
OR,
Graduation with at least 50% marks and Bachelor of Education (B.Ed.), on the condition that who has acquired the qualification of Bachelor of Education from any NCTE Recognised Institution shall be considered for appointment as a teacher in classes I to V provided the person so appointed as a teacher shall mandatorily undergo a six month Bridge Course in Elementary Education recognized by the NCTE, within two years of such appointment as primary teacher.
OTET Previous Year Question & Answer 2019 To 2013 Pdf
(b) Category – B
Graduation and 2 year Diploma in Elementary Education (by whatever name known).
OR,
Graduation with at least 50% marks and 1 year bachelor in Education(B.Ed.).
OR,
Graduation with at least 45% marks and 1 year Bachelor in Education (B.Ed.) in accordance with the NCTE (Recognition Norms and Procedure) Regulations issued from time to time in this regard.
OR,
Higher Secondary (or its equivalent) with at least 50% marks and 4 year Bachelor in Elementary Education (B.El.Ed.).
OR,
Higher Secondary (or its equivalent) with at least 50% marks and 4 year B.A./ B.Sc, Ed or B.A. Ed./ B.Sc. Ed.
OR, Graduation with at least 50% marks and 1 year B.Ed. (Special Education). Provided that relaxation of 5% minimum qualifying marks in Higher Secondary or graduation level, as the case may be, shall be allowed to the
candidates belonging to SC, ST, SEBC & PWD category.
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(I) Persons having D.Ed. (Special Education) or B.Ed (Special Education) qualification shall undergo, after appointment, an NCTE recognized 6 month Special Programme in Elementary Education.
(II) Persons having qualification or pursuing final year of any of the teacher education courses (recognized by the NCTE or by the RCI, as the case may be) can appear in the respective category for which he/ she is eligible.
(III) Persons declared eligible by the State Govt./ NCTE/ Govt. of India from timeto time.
(IV) Eligibility for appearing in examination papers for persons covered under Para- 2 (III) will be notified by the Govt. after declaration of their eligibility.
Examination Pattern –
(I) There shall be two papers of the OTET viz- Paper-I and Paper-II.
(II) Total duration of the test in each paper shall be 2½ hours.
(III) All questions will be Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ), each carrying one mark with four alternatives out of which one answer is correct.
(IV) The question papers in non-language subjects shall be bilingual i.e. in Odia and English.
(V) Following languages shall be offered in Language – I:- Odia, Hindi, Telugu, Urdu, Bengali. The candidate has to choose any one of the above languages for Language-I subject.
(VI) Language-II subject shall be English for all candidates.
(VII) There shall be no negative marking.